DsmbISP Chapter 3 - (Version 4.1)



1. A network technician is assigned to perform a site visit to a customer location to determine the requirements for a network upgrade. In addition to the currently installed equipment inventory, what other information about the hosts and networking devices should the technician obtain from the customer?
*any planned growth anticipated in the near future

2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
*unlabeled cables
*poor physical security of network devices
*lack of UPS for critical devices

3. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
*the path that the data takes through a network
*the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
*the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

4. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
*investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
*perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

5. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
*IDF

6. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
user workstations
*switches and routers
*the point of presence

7. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
*router

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
*A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
*to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion

10. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
*improved physical security
*centralized cable management

11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
*reliability

12. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
*coaxial

13. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
*point of presence

14. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
*Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
*The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.

15. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
*An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.

16. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
*A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.

17. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to accomodate growing network demands. What characteristic must this device have to meet this requirement?
*modular physical configuration

18. Refer to the exhibit. To allow IP communication between the two networks, what type of device is required?
*router

19. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
*predictable billing
*increase availability of help desk services

DsmbISP Chapter 4 - (Version 4.1)



1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
*256


2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
*11100111


3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
*254


4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
*192.168.32.255


5. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
*30


6. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
*Class A


7. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
*Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.


8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
*The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.


9. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
*to preserve registered public IP addresses
*to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet


10. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
*128


11. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
*The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
*All subnets in a network are the same size.


12. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
*Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.


13. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
*The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.


14. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
*128 to 191


15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
*2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13


16. Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
*192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94


17. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
*private IP address


18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
*1024 and above


19. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. HostA has sent a request to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
*172.30.20.10

DsmbISP Chapter 5 - (Version 4.1)



1. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to "LAB_A"?
*Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A


2. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
*VTY interface
*console interface
*privileged EXEC mode


3. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
*Telnet


4. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
*Set the command history buffer size.
*Recall previously entered commands.


5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
*user EXEC mode


6. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
*clocking for the synchronous link


7. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
*SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
*SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.


8. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
*host name
*domain name
*enable secret password


9. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
*Frame Relay
*HDLC
*PPP


10. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
*DNS server IP address


11. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
*Tab


12. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
*steady amber


13. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
*Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.


14. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
*platform
*connected interface of neighbor device
*device ID


15. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will correctly configure the serial interface on Router2?
*Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown


16. When utilizing SDM Express, which two configuration options allow a router serial interface to obtain an IP address without manually configuring it? (Choose two.)
*IP Negotiated
*IP Unnumbered


17. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway via the switch console port. The switch VLAN 1 interface is assigned IP address 192.168.5.68/26. What command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
*X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.126


18. Refer to the exhibit. Users on both SW1 and SW2 report that they are unable to communicate with each other. A network administrator issues show ip interface brief commands on both routers to troubleshoot the connectivity between the two networks. What action will correct the connectivity issue?
*Issue a no shutdown command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RB.


19. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show port-security interface fastethernet0/1 command on the switch, which statement about the switch port is true?
*There are ten devices with different MAC addresses connected to this port.


20. What step must be completed before port security can be enabled on an interface?
*The interface must be in access mode.


21. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to a switch on the same LAN via Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
*Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown.
*Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login.
*Switch1(config)# enable secret class.


22. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
*This is the default mode on an unconfigured router when first powered up.
*Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.


23. Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
*1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port


24. An administrator enters the show ip route command into a router. What type of information will be displayed?
*the networks learned from other neighbors


25.A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
*There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.

DsmbISP Chapter 6 - (Version 4.1)



1. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
*It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.


2. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
*Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.


3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
*when the company uses two or more ISPs


4. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
*autonomous system


5. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
*BGP


6. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
*border gateway router


7. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
*destination IP address


8. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
*AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.


9. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
*BGP


10. Consider this routing table entry:


R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1


What type of route is this?
*a RIP route


11. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
*immediately


12. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
*subnet mask


13. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
*a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
*a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs


14. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
*They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
*They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S


15. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
*Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system.


16. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
*routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0


17. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why?
*A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric


18. What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP?
*to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates


19. Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from HostA to HostB?
*15


20. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
*use the default route

DsmbISP Chapter 7 - (Version 4.1)



1. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
*identifies the appropriate service from the destination port field


2. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
*It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.


3. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
*low overhead
*no flow control
*no error-recovery function


4. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
*source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port


5. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
*dynamic


6. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
*reverse lookup


7. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
*mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
*forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server


8. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
*SMTP


9. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
*FTP
*HTTP
*SMTP


10. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
*availability
*reliability


11. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
*The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
*The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.


12. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
*caching-only


13. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
*HTTP - 80
*SMTP - 25


14. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
*It supports authentication.
*It encrypts packets with SSL.
*It requires additional server processing time.


15. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
*It utilizes a store and forward process.
*SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.


16. Which three fields do a TCP header and a UDP header have in common? (Choose three.)
*source port
*checksum
*destination port


17. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which two values will likely be the same in all packets for each session? (Choose two.)
*IP address
*MAC address


18. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
*Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
*Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
*The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.


19. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
*Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.


20. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
*Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80


21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
*The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
*If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address.

DsmbISP Chapter 8 - (Version 4.1)



1. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
*encryption


2. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
*trap


3. What is the term used to describe the area of a network which stores servers that are accessible to any users from the Internet?
*DMZ


4. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
*full


5. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed?
*stateful packet inspection




6. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
*IPSEC
*SSL
*HTTPS


7. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication?
*IPSEC


8. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
*date and time of message
*ID of sending device
*message ID


9. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources?
*authorization


10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)
*Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
*Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.


11. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network?
*The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.


12. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
*It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.


13. hat are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)
*Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
*Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.


14. Refer to the exhibit. While the user on router A is connected to router B through telnet, the CTRL-SHIFT-6 x keystroke is entered. What effect does this have?
*It suspends the connection to router B.


15. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been successfully completed? (Choose two.)
*reviewing backup logs
*performing a trial restore


16. Which three applications can be used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
*HTTP
*SNMP
*Telnet


17. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.)
*ports
*protocols


18. Which AAA service provides detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also keeps a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?
*accounting


19. While downloading an IOS image from a TFTP server, an administrator sees long strings of exclamation marks (!) output to the console. What does this mean?
*The transfer is working.


20. What does the command copy flash tftp accomplish?
*It copies the IOS in flash to a TFTP server.

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